Wednesday, 20 May 2009
Now I think ive hit gold with this one. I was thinking about how bart ehrman makes a big thing of how we dont have the origional manuscripts for the bible and so dont know what the origionals said. Well what if we use his argument and apply it to the question if wheather jebus existed? Suppose none of the origional manuscripts mention jebus and every reference to jebus in the bible were a textual variant. Well, then the bible would have never mentioned jebus. Seeing all the other references to jebus are known to be xian forgeries we know xians were faking documents to justify there a priori assumption jebus existed. Moreover earl dhorethy has pointed out that there are pssages in the bible that clearly state jebus didnt exist. So can you prove to me that any of the references to jebus were in the original manuscripts when we dont have the origional manuscripts?